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VIDEO re BDS — Omar Barghouti and German Jewish prof. Micha Brunlik, in Germany, arguing merits of BDS. (speaking of video —)
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=618sECmymLY
A number of very important points were driven home, and Barghouti held his ground, or, should say, repeated the arguments he has vetted.
For the most part, Barghouti does a good job — certainly more than I do; I’m fearful of putting my name & face in the public spotlight for fear of the zionist establishment coming down on me like a ton of bricks.
BUT –
It must be said, Barghouti’s history is wildly distorted, which gives him leave to heap opprobrium on Germany, thereby give ‘aid and comfort to zionists.”
Specifically, at 1:09 in the video, Barghouti says:
“The boycott against Germany [1933-1941] hurt many innocent Germans but it was worth it bcause it stopped the genocide.”
This is not only factually incorrect, it is ludicrous.
The facts as they are opens a can of worms that, in my opinion, should be fed to zionists at every opportunity.
The Jewish boycott of Germany, which the Jewish boycotters called “Hitlerite Germany,” was called for, by Louis Brandeis, between Jan. 30, 1933, when Hitler was appointed chancellor, and Feb. 14, 1933. In that two-week timespan, Brandeis declared to Rabbi Stephen Wise, “All Jews must leave Germany.”
Hitler’s appointment as chancellor was not ratified until Mar. 5, 1933; Brandeis jumped the gun with his pre-Feb. 14 diktat. Why did Brandeis declare that All Jews Must Leave Germany?
That’s an important point, but not the largest point.
The claim is oft made that, beginning the moment Hitler became chancellor, “Jews were persecuted.” What does “persecution” mean; does “persecution” amount to “genocide,” as Barghouti asserted, and IF genocide occurred, in what time frame did it occur, and what was its relation to the Jewish boycott of Germany?
1. According to Breitman & Lichtman in “FDR and the Jews,”
“Upon gaining power in 1933, Adolf Hitler and other leading Nazis targeted for persecution alleged blood enemies of the German race. Yet before the war Nazi oppression of German Jews followed a jagged trajectory. SOME NAZI ACTIVISTS PHYSICALLY ASSAULTED JEWS IN THE EARLY exuberant DAYS of Hitler’s semilegal revolution. Once secure in their authority, NAZI OFFICIALS CURBED PERSONAL VIOLENCE, but ENACTED A SERIES OF DISCRIMINITORY LAWS and decrees, what contemporary observers called Hitler’s “cold pogrom” against Jews. ONLY IN LATE 1938 did central authorities instigate the violence known as Kristallnacht – . . . FOR THE FIRST TIME, [i.e. not until 1938] the Gestapo imprisoned tens of thousands of German Jews in concentration camps that also held other alleged enemies of Hitler’s new Reich.”
That is, after “Judea Declare[d] War on Germany” on March 24, 1933, by means of economic boycott intended to destroy Germany economically, not only did the “Hitlerites” NOT retaliate against Jews with physical violence, they actually worked to “curb” anti-Jewish violence that, as Goering argued repeatedly and on the record, well up from the populace — it was NOT imposed from above. The US Holocaust Museum implicitly validates Goering’s claim, when USHMM says that Kristallnacht was an action against Jews that was authorized by Nazi leadership. (That claim is specious, but the argument is for another day.)
So for five years, Jews prosecuted an economic boycott against the German people, which Barghouti says “harmed many innocent Germans,” and for not merely imagined offenses by “Hitlerites” against Jews, but, as Breitman & Lichtman say, for “curbing” violence against Jews, clearly not a “genocidal” agenda.
What did the Jews who imposed boycott hope to accomplish, and what did they, indeed, accomplish?
First of all, it should be recognized that by the end of 1932, the zionist project in Palestine was going broke; it was in danger of collapse without an infusion of cash that only wealthy Jews — GERMAN Jews — could provide. German Jews were not willing to migrate to Palestine: it was undeveloped, wild, risky, and not nearly as comfortable as their homes in Berlin, Frankfurt, and Hamburg.
The Judean Declaration of War against Germany published in London newspapers on March 24, 1933 had two major purposes:
1. To provoke Germany into harsh actions towards German Jews in order to frighten them to flee to Palestine (with the overflow migrating to US);
AND, as this little nugget buried in Judean Declaration of War states:
“Another petition was handed in at the British Consulate-General requesting that Palestine should receive refugees from Germany
without restriction. “
aha.
After all of Chaim Weizmann’s mendacious efforts at getting Great Britain, and that sap Balfour, to hand over Palestine to Jews; and after all the efforts of Brandeis and the 120-member strong zionist ‘team’ at Versailles to undercut Woodrow Wilson; betray Wilson’s promise to the Arabs; and toss Germany under the bus [yes, Jews DID stab Germany in the back], now Great Britain was having second thoughts about riling those millions of Arabs who controlled all that oil. Britain imposed limits on the number of Jews who might migrate to Palestine.
Did the NSDAP force Jews to leave Germany? No, they did not. According to documents aggregated in 1933-1934 by Leonard Stein, titled “Persecution of the Jews in Germany,” Jews confronted job discrimination in Germany, but were not subjected to systematic, government-directed physical violence. It was a time of exceedingly high unemployment in Germany (and elsewhere); Jews were dominant in Weimar, which had mismanaged the economy to the extent that many Germans starved to death in the post-war years, a follow-on to the 800,000 German civilians who starved to death during the Great War. (Chaim Weizman played a key role in supporting the British blockade on Germany that caused the famine/starvation that claimed so many German lives. Weizman’s ‘reward’ for his efforts was the Balfour Declaration.)
What DID the Judean Declaration of War on Germany/ Economic Boycott accomplish? Did it have anything to do with “genocide of Jews,” as Barghouti claimed?
Firstly, let’s lay to rest any connection between “genocide” and the 1933 – 1941 boycott. As late as June 11, 1944, David Ben-Gurion, as head of the Jewish Agency Executive in Palestine, delivered the consensus of the JAE that “Auschwitz is just a labor camp.” Eleven years after the Judean Declaration of War on Germany, the leaders of the zionist project had no evidence of genocide.
On the other hand, by 1936, so much wealth had flowed into Palestine that it became the most prosperous locale on the globe, in the midst of a worldwide depression.
By 1937, Erich Mendelsohn, “the Jewish architect,” began construction on major buildings of Hebrew University. (One of Sam Untermyer’s most vitriolic, anti-German speeches, in which he declared, “Jews are the aristocrats of Germany,” and “Germans are barbarians,” was delivered at a fund-raiser for the construction of Hebrew University.
[continued]
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Solon May 14, 2013 at 6:14 am – Reply
rant re Judea Declares War on Germany, Mar 1933, continued:
In addition to over-correcting the financial distress experienced by the zionist project in Palestine, the atrocity propaganda that accompanies the Judean Declaration of War on Germany in 1933 eventually persuaded FDR’s administration to open immigration to the US for Jews. In a year when 300,000 European immigrants were admitted to USA, 200,000 of them were German Jews.
There were plenty of other places where Jews could have gone. Dominican Republic set aside half of the island for Jewish settlement, and even pledged generous financial support; it could have accommodated as many as half-a-million. Five thousand Jews migrated to DR.
What else, besides the financial stabilization of the zionist project in Palestine, did the Jewish boycott of Germany “accomplish?”
-It enraged Polish leaders, with whom both the US and German leaders were attempting to nonviolently negotiate accommodation for the thousands of German national who were ‘trapped’ in Polish territory as a result of Versailles treaty territorial divisions.
-It threw sand in the gears of FDR’s efforts to non-violently disarm Europe while guaranteeing Germany’s security. FDR delivered a speech proposing terms to settle European and German financial and security claims. The next day, Hitler delivered a speech acquiescing to FDR’s proposals; FDR boasted that he had achieved the greatest possible agreement. Jews threw sand in the gears of the proposals, and the negotiations came to naught. Germany eventually withdrew from disarmament talks.
(If any of this sounds like AIPAC and zionist actions regarding US-Iran relations, it’s probably not mere coincidence. This morning (May 13, 2013) Jay Solomon of Wall Street Journal was on C Span Washington Journal. Match up his mendacious presentation with the passage about Chaim Weizman’s negotiating tactics (that I posted in an earlier comment), and you will see where today’s zionists get their tactics and ideological mindset.
So, did the Jewish boycott of Germany “stop” the genocide?
No, most likely it CAUSED a genocide, not of Jews, but of millions of Germans, Russians, Arabs, and thousands of Italians, French, British, and Americans.
And Slavic Jews.
Arthur Ruppin was educated in Germany as a lawyer. In 1907 he began work in Palestine to establish the Jewish colonization of that land.
According to Etan Bloom’s biography of Ruppin, he was deeply committed to the principles of eugenics. He applied those principles to the selection of “human material” to create the “new Jew” who would populate the Jewish colony. Slavic Jews were the least desireable of “human material.” Both Ruppin and Vladimir Jabotinsky were repulsed by the “dirt and filth” of East European Jews, as he observed in the second aliyeh. http://www.tau.ac.il/tarbut/tezot/bloom/EtanBloom-PhD-ArthurRuppin.pdf (Compare Ruppin’s observations w/ those of Hitler, when he encountered E. European Jews in Vienna.)
Relatively few German Jews died in the war in Europe 1939-1945. The largest cohort of Jews who died were Slavic Jews.
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